Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "p...

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

How severely should I get punished? Please describe throughly. Today I got my result of my test nd I found out that I failed in 2 subjects, my parents are currently in abroad nd I lied to them about the fail but I feel guilty now.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

You'll usually find your answer there.

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Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

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There's no rule.

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

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